1. Simon was saved but lost his salvation.
2. Simon was never saved at any point.
3. Simon was saved but in danger of physical death for his sin.
I will be focusing primarily on certain free grace teachers out there as I have to side against them on this one. They hold to number 3 that Simon was merely a carnal Christian that had the sin of carnal ambition who was only in danger of the chastening hand of God. He was to repent of his wicked thought to be forgiven and restored to fellowship with God. My refuting number 3 will also refute number 1 as well.
I have read books and articles that have dealt with Simon and him being saved. I have to admit that I found their position to be very unconvincing as they often read words into the text nowhere stated. If we are going to accuse the Lordship Salvation advocates of adding words to a passage nowhere stated then we ought to show the same consistency by not adding words here.
Certain teachers of the free grace position believe that since Acts 8:13 says, "Simon also believed" proves irrefutably that Simon was saved. Simon was baptized too and will quote Acts 2:38 and Acts 16:31-33 for additional support. It appears that any time you have a verse that says, "believed on Him" then it must be true saving faith in every instance according to them. If that is true then those free grace teachers will have a hard time answering what Peter actually meant when he spoke harsh words to Simon. I will share how the words are actually used elsewhere and how free grace teachers will quote verses that clearly do not relate at all.
However, John 2:23-24 appears to contradict such a position that "believe" is always saving. The verses read:
Now when he was in Jerusalem at the passover, in the feast day, many believed (PISTEUO) in his name, when they saw the miracles which he did.
But Jesus did not commit (PISTEUO) himself unto them, because he knew all men
Some free grace teachers believe that since the words "believe in His name" were used then the people had to be saved and quote John 1:12. I do agree with many others that their belief was not in a Christ who takes away sin but only in the miracles they observed. Jesus perceiving this knowing what was in their hearts did not "commit" Himself unto them. Some versions translates the same Greek word for "believe" as trust. They write that Jesus did not "trust" them. I am not saying that these people are saved or not but that the word Jesus used casts some doubt as Jesus "PISTEUO" appears to speaking against their "PISTEUO" that was "in Him." I just don't know if they believed the message or the miracles. It seems that such miracles is what led us to John 3 and Nicodemus. He too spoke about the miracles that he and others were seeing. I will comment on that shortly.
I found one author comparing Matthew 12:48-50 to these verses here in John believing he is clarifying what Jesus meant by His response "Jesus did not commit himself unto them." Comparing Matthew 12:48-50 to John 2:23-24, the author argues that friendship with Christ is conditional and that is why Jesus would not "commit Himself unto them." I found that to be an example of reading words nowhere stated into John 2. Matthew 12 and John 2 are not even identical. You will not find similar wording either. I also do not like reading words into the context nowhere stated. If friendship with Jesus is conditional then I can read Psalm 41:9 that speaks about Judas:
Yea, mine own familiar (close) friend, in whom I trusted, which did eat of my bread, hath lifted up his heel against me.(Compare to John 13:18).
Jesus called Judas "friend" when Judas betrayed Him with a kiss. Was Judas a friend because he was abiding in Christ? Reading verses from all over the place can create problems as you can make Scripture teach anything. Looking at the immediate context is critical. Comparing the same Greek words or phrases can be extremely helpful in understanding what an author meant.
I was told by another man claiming to believe in free grace:
"The believers of John 2:23-24 were not willing at that point to abide in His word, so He did not want to entrust them with further intimate knowledge."
That is a little better than the usual free grace arguments that I heard and is the position held by Dr Charles Bing and probably others. "Not willing to abide in His word" and "entrust them with further intimate knowledge" appears to be read into the verse. He comes up with his position by reading John 8:30-32 into what we read here to make it appear plausible. I don't like reading into verses because we can read John 3 into John 2:23-24. John 3:2 says:
The same came to Jesus by night, and said unto him, Rabbi, we know that thou art a teacher come from God: for no man can do these miracles that thou doest, except God be with him.
We can argue again that it is possible to have faith in miracles but not necessarily Christ. The miracles itself should bring one to faith but not necessarily. It appears that in John 3 the Pharisees had discussed amongst themselves the miracles that Jesus had done when Nicodemus said, "We know that thou art a teacher come from God" but were not saved.
I'm not here to argue John 2:23-24 but only to show a similarity of what we read here to Acts 8. As we now study Acts 8 then I do hope you too will see the similarities and how Simon was never a saved man. If one wants to argue "context" then let's let Acts 8 argue for itself. If you are convinced that "believe" must always mean saving then you will be forced to read and see words nowhere stated in Acts.
I read Acts 8 but not once do I see God's wondrous grace being read concerning Simon but the passage certainly has him in focus. I see a story about a sorcerer that "bewitched the people of Samaria." Simon was a man that boasted to others that he was "some great one."
I read that Simon's followers to FIRST believe the good news concerning the kingdom. Simon had lost his followers. Verse 13 beings with "THEN Simon himself believed also" as it appears that only when Simon lost his followers then he too believed. It appears that Simon "believed" the same message of verse 12. It only says, "he believed" and nothing else. I will not argue that "himself believed" as being the same as "believed on Him" as I need to look at the context as a whole.
Verse 13 doesn't even end without us hearing how Simon "wondered, beholding the miracles and signs which were done" which seems to parallel to a certain extent John 2:23-24. Simon believed the miracles but we will soon see that he had a perverted understanding of a free gift. Again, Simon and not his followers is being singled out here. It still amazes me after all the faith healers that have been exposed that people are still drawn to signs and wonders. People claiming faith because some image on brick wall looks like the Virgin Mary or because of statues of Mary with tears coming down her face.
Verse 17 reads:
Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost.
It doesn't say Simon received the Holy Spirit. Some will argue that "they" would include Simon but this passage already has been "Simon" versus "they" all along. Simon is being singled out here. It appears that his followers received the Holy Spirit because it was something Simon only "saw" in verse 18 that says:
And when Simon saw that through laying on of the apostles' hands the Holy Ghost was given, he offered them money
Verses 18-19 tells us that Simon offered money proving that he had a perverted understanding of a free gift. He lost his followers in verse 12 and now it appears that he found a way to still come across as "some great one" to others if he only can get his hands on this power he was observing.
Verse 20, Peter gives a very strong response to Simon's wickedness:
But Peter said unto him, Thy money perish with thee, because thou hast thought that the gift of God may be purchased with money.
Peter uses the word "perish" that literally means, "be unto destruction." Question, did Peter mean physical death or spiritual death here as both are possible? Was Peter saying, "Go die with your money"? Or, "To hell with you and your money"? This is where some free grace teachers will argue that "perish" here is physical death. They will quote Acts 5 where Ananias and Sapphira dropped dead physically over the issue of money. It would help their case if Peter used the word "perish" in Acts 5, but he doesn't.
The word "perish" can either mean physical death or spiritual death. John 3:15,16; 10:28 are some verses that clearly use the word "perish" as referring to the lost. We obviously will have to look further in this chapter to see if Peter was addressing a saved man in danger of physical death or a lost man in danger of damnation.
Verse 21 seems to give the proof that Simon was indeed a lost man. The verse reads:
Thou hast neither part nor lot in this matter: for thy heart is not right in the sight of God.
Peter said, "Thou hast neither part nor lot in this matter" and that sounds quite clear to me that Simon was not a saved man. However, certain free grace teachers will quote John 13:8 that says:
Peter saith unto him, Thou shalt never wash my feet. Jesus answered him, If I wash thee not, thou hast no part with me.
They read John 13:8 into Acts 8:21 and claim that Jesus was teaching that we must confess our sins to remain in fellowship. To have no "part or lot" simply means to them that Simon was out of fellowship and needed to repent and seek forgiveness to be restored. That is terrible exegesis on their part. The word "lot" in verse 21 is the same Greek word used when talking about the saved. To have "no lot" would mean to have no salvation. The word "lot" can be translated as "inheritance." No such words are found in John 13:8. To further prove that their reading of John 13:8 into Acts 8:21 is wrong is by looking elsewhere to see how the word is used. The exact same Greek word is used in the same book of Acts. Acts 26:18 reads:
To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.
That verse clearly is speaking a message to the lost and that is irrefutable. How does the lost have the inheritance among them which are sanctified? Was Simon a saved man that had "no part or lot"? How can you now read John 13:8 into Acts 8:21? Look at the same Greek word in Colossians 1:12:
Giving thanks unto the Father, which hath made us meet to be partakers of the inheritance of the saints in light:
1st Peter 5:3 has the same Greek word but translated as "heritage":
Neither as being lords over God's heritage, but being examples to the flock.
What Peter said seems to parallel Deuteronomy 12:12 where the Levites had no inheritance in the promised land as it was not given to them:
And ye shall rejoice before the LORD your God, ye, and your sons, and your daughters, and your menservants, and your maidservants, and the Levite that is within your gates; forasmuch as he hath no part nor inheritance with you.
Deuteronomy 14:27 says:
And the Levite that is within thy gates; thou shalt not forsake him; for he hath no part nor inheritance with thee.
I cannot and will not agree with certain free grace teachers that Simon only needed forgiveness to be restored to fellowship in order to escape the chastening hand of God where he would die for his sin as verse 21 clearly contradicts them. The wording here does not support John 13:8 or that Simon was only a carnal Christian needing restoration. Simon was clearly a lost man.
The second half of verse 21 is especially interesting that says:
for thy heart is not right in the sight of God.
Someone might argue that a believer can have a heart that is not right with God here. However, I found that specific Greek word for "right" only translated as "right" in 2 other places and it doesn't help the case for Simon ever being saved. One of those verses comes from 2nd Peter 2:15:
Which have forsaken the right way, and are gone astray, following the way of Balaam the son of Bosor, who loved the wages of unrighteousness;
Do you know that the other verse for this Greek word "right" is found only a few chapters away after Acts 8? The part that surprised me in my study is that the same word "right" is used when addressing another sorcerer who clearly was not saved. See Acts 13:8-10:
But Elymas the sorcerer (for so is his name by interpretation) withstood them, seeking to turn away the deputy from the faith.
Then Saul, (who also is called Paul,) filled with the Holy Ghost, set his eyes on him.
And said, O full of all subtilty and all mischief, thou child of the devil, thou enemy of all righteousness, wilt thou not cease to pervert the right ways of the Lord?
One might argue that this proves nothing as Greek words can certainly have more than one type of meaning. I agree, but none of these things here supports any idea that Simon was a saved man that turned carnal and only needed forgiveness to have his fellowship restored. The facts keep mounting that Simon was a lost man.
Verse 22 says:
Repent therefore of this thy wickedness, and pray God, if perhaps the thought of thine heart may be forgiven thee.
The word "repent" (METANOEO) is consistently used in the book of Acts to the unsaved and not the saved. Acts 2:38:
Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Acts 3:19:
Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord.
Acts 17:30:
And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent:
Acts 26:20 uses the word "repent" and it also is the same chapter and context that I quoted earlier using the same Greek word for "lot":
But shewed first unto them of Damascus, and at Jerusalem, and throughout all the coasts of Judaea, and then to the Gentiles, that they should repent and turn to God, and do works meet for repentance.
To claim that Simon only needed to repent to be restored to fellowship CANNOT be supported by Scripture here as one can see for themselves that "repent" in the entire book of Acts does not mean what some free grace teachers so desperately want it to mean. The evidence is now overwhelming that Simon was a lost man.
Peter said in verse 22, "if perhaps the thought of thine heart may be forgiven thee." Some free grace teachers will attempt to use this as proof that Simon was a saved man because the message of the gospel is "believe and thou shalt be saved" and not "believe and perhaps thou shalt be saved." It is verse 23 that makes it clear what Peter meant here. Some also view verse 22 that God might be reluctant to forgive Simon but that is not the case either. Verse 23 says:
For I perceive that thou art in the gall of bitterness, and in the bond of iniquity.
Verse 23 makes it clear that Peter believed Simon to be extremely wicked and in the bond of iniquity that he chose the word "perhaps" in verse 22. Peter appears to have strong doubts that Simon in his extreme wickedness could even repent in such a condition and we will soon see that was the case. God is not unwilling to forgive as some see the verse to mean but that Simon's condition was a very grim one. It was in verse 24 that one can see that Simon did not pray as Peter instructed but asked Peter to pray on his behalf.
Some free grace teachers argue that "gall of bitterness" does not mean the same thing as damnation, but I do not know of anyone that makes the claim that they are equivalent. They claim that a believer can be bound by iniquity. I agree that a believer can be bound by sins (lust, anger, etc), but I do not like to force our language of today into a verse. Verse 23 here is quite similar to that of the OT that speaks of apostasy. Deut. 29:18 says:
Lest there should be among you man, or woman, or family, or tribe, whose heart turneth away this day from the LORD our God, to go and serve the gods of these nations; lest there should be among you a root that beareth gall and wormwood
The "gall of bitterness" refers to extreme wickedness. "Bitterness" can be used for both believers and unbelievers alike (compare Romans 3:14 to Ephesians 4:31). I cannot find "bond of iniquity" as a reference to the saved, but I can't prove that it only applies to the lost either. I examined the word "bond" as to how it is used elsewhere in the NT. Does "bond of iniquity" speak to the saved or the unsaved? I never find the same word for "bond of iniquity" ever being said concerning a believer. I instead find the same word "bond" when addressing the believer as:
"the bond of peace" (Eph. 4:3)
"the bond of perfectness" (Colossians 3:14)
"bands having nourishment ministered" (Col. 2:19, bands is the same Gk word).
One might argue that what I just shared proves nothing. It is my opinion that "bond of iniquity" is the opposite of how others use it to describe a believer. I find the "bond of iniquity" as addressing an unbeliever that has not yet been "freed from sin" (Romans 6:7) but is clearly a "servant of sin" (Romans 6:20).
Simon was to repent of his extreme wickedness who demonstrated clearly that he had a perverted view of grace. How can we even believe for a second that a man who offers money for God's free gift is saved man. Was the sin of Ananias and Sapphira who kept back part of the price of the land and lied about it the same as Simon that offered money for a free gift of God? Some strangely will argue they are similar and that Simon can expect the same fate if he doesn't repent. To argue that Simon was a carnal Christian who needed to be restored to fellowship only with God is to argue completely out of the book of Acts. The only way to get such reading is to run to outside passages or books that clearly do not relate or share the same words as found in Acts 8.
It is clear that the words Peter chose to use supports that Simon was NEVER saved. His thoughts were clearly wicked and perverse and obviously one should be able to see that such an understanding of a free gift of God would keep anyone from salvation. This not only refutes the position held by some free grace teachers but also those that believe you can lose your salvation. You can't be saved if you believe God's gift can be bought with money. People today believe that you have to do good works in order to get the things from God that He freely gives. Simon was so wicked that he thought he could offer some money for it.
Verse 24 says:
Then answered Simon, and said, Pray ye to the LORD for me, that none of these things which ye have spoken come upon me.
Verse 24 shows that Simon was greatly concerned about the warnings Peter gave. Do you honestly believe that Simon was merely worried about losing his fellowship relationship with God? Do you honestly believe that Simon only feared the possibility of physical death by the chastening hand of God? Or, was Simon concerned because he feared perishing in the sense that it is given in the gospel? Simon had no "lot" with them. Simon was to "repent" and clearly that applies to the lost in the book of Acts. He was told by Peter to perish with his money. That is harsh language just like the apostle Paul that said in Galatians 1:8 about those that preach another gospel, "let him be accursed." What do you think concerned Simon? What would concern you most if Peter spoke these words to you?
If Simon merely was concerned about his loss of fellowship and only needed to pray to be restored then his comments in verse 24 makes absolutely no sense. He wanted Peter to pray for him instead so that "none of these things" which Peter had spoken would come upon him. The evidence is overwhelming that Simon was never saved. I read many articles and books concerning Simon as being a saved man and I have yet to see any convincing arguments to convince me otherwise.
I support free grace as taught by Scripture and never man. The danger of some free grace teachers that make the word "believed" as always and only meaning "saving faith" in such verses is that they are now put in a position where they will have to make every verse now read their way. Just like the Calvinist that teaches that Christ died only for the elect as they will now have to funnel every verse that speaks about Christ dying for all as now somehow meaning not all but some. Acts 8 is a clear example from the books I have read where free grace teachers will twist, add words or read other passages that clearly have nothing to do with Acts 8 at all. Just as it is clear that John 3:16 teaches that Christ died for all by the context, so Acts 8 teaches that Simon was never saved by the context. Again, if we are going to accuse Lordship salvation of adding words into a passage that clearly are not stated then let's not be guilty of the same. I believe some free grace teachers would do better to say that Peter was judging Simon's words and seriously questioned Simon's salvation for it. If a man told me that he like to offer money for God's free gift then I too would doubt his salvation and question him.
I do not believe that Simon was never saved because he didn't endure to the end like Lordship salvation claims but because his understanding of a free gift was perverted. Simon showed his wicked heart because he never acknowledges his wickedness. As far as I am concerned, Simon only seen himself as "some great one" and never a sinner and that is probably why Simon even in the end doesn't acknowledge his wickedness but only wanted the consequences he feared removed. Simon needed to repent of his thoughts or he would perish.
